In addition to particular responses from other members who may have noticed such a potential decline in remuneration, if any, I would encourage the poster of this forum entry to regularly check IACCM annual salary review. Please refer to our IACCM library, by clicking on www.iaccm.com/resources/contract-management-resources/
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Under Common Law principles, liability for personal injury or death cannot be excluded. So it most likely makes no difference whether or not the provision is struck because the customer could not deny their legal liability in the event of negligence leading to this form of loss.
What if there is an industry practise/custom to allow a party to exclude its liability even for its own negligence and it is being upheld by the court of law. What happens then?
I think that the second question goes to the difference between an indemnity and ordinary liability. Under general Common Law principles, the lack of an indemnity for a particular thing does not necessarily mean that a party won't be liable for that thing. The specific issue here is a legal question. It's probably worth a call to counsel so that you can be certain you will be covered in this circumstance. I see this as a different question than "excluding" liability for one's own negligence. Such clauses typically require clearing a higher legal hurdle.
All this said, I really do not understand why the customer would be so unwilling to indemnify for harm they caused. It's generally considered a reasonable commitment.